Why do some people play 1. d4 or 1.c4 ???
Southpaw wrote (Fri, 4 Jul 2003 19:58:08 +0100):
Whether Fischer thought that the two pawns and the time it took
Spassky to march his king from d3 to get the bishop would be
compensation, or whether he did actually miscalculate the line
involving 32...h3 33 Kg4 Bg1 34 Kxh3 Bxf2 35 Bd2!, we will
never know since Fischer has hardly commented on it, and could
hardly be considered to be objective even if he did.
I wrote (Fri, 04 Jul 2003 23:33:36 -0500):
Perhaps my memory is playing tricks on me, but I thought that
there was a brief comment by Fischer on the matter in that
book, No Regrets. Can anyone check to see what (if anything)
he said about it?
Southpaw wrote (Sat, 5 Jul 2003 13:41:51 +0100):
Louis - I've not read No Regrets. My only knowledge of Fischer
commenting on the case is during the press conference before the
92 match - "Why did you take on h2? Were you trying to create
winning chances by complicating a drawn position?" "Basically
that's right. Yes". We can take what we like from that.
_
I think that is the quote that I had in mind. I guess it is not very
helpful for this discussion. Perhaps there is something about the
matter in that Bobby Fischer vs. the Rest of the World book.
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