![]() |
| If this is your first visit, be sure to check out the FAQ by clicking the link above. You may have to register before you can post: click the register link above to proceed. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below. |
|
|||||||
| Tags: been, checkers, has, solved |
|
|
Thread Tools | Display Modes |
|
#21
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Mar 26, 9:13*pm, wrote:
On Mar 26, 11:14*pm, bob wrote: On Mar 25, 9:11*pm, wrote: Almost surely, there _are_ situations like that in backgammon. *Can't you mimic the above scenario in backgammon by postulating 18 monster rolls for each side? But, suppose there are such situations in backgammon, why does it then follow that the value of a cube, as well as its position, can affect theoretical money play? *This seems to be a hole in your argument. *So let us assume that your scenario is exactly replicated in backgammon where there's a stalemate but each side has 18 monster winning rolls, and no gammons are possible. *Please explain why this scenario leads to the conclusion that the scenario with a 2 cube is essentially different than the scenario with a 1024 cube. * *I doubt that there is a siutation like that in backgammon. Note that you would need the 18 non-monster rolls to lead to repeating positions. There has been one proposed but it only can arise as the result of an illegal checker play. *Here is why such a situation will affect theoretical money play: *Theoretical money play means making the move that maximizes equity, assuming perfect play from the opponent. Equity means the expected value of the position. Take my coin flipping example again. If both players use the always double/take strategy then the player on turn will win $2 with probability 1/2, will lose $4 with probability 1/4, will win $8 with probability 1/8, will lose $16 with probability 1/16 ... *The expected value is 2(1/2) + (-4)(1/4) + (8)(1/8) + (-16) (1/16) + ... which does not converge. The expected value is not even defined. Bob Koca Yes, indeed. *I realised that. *However, you appeared to claim that this no-equity position implies that the value of the cube needs to be taken into account when enumerating positions. *You don't show this. In your example, whether the cube is on 2 or 4 or whatever, it's still the same no-equity verdict. Paul Epstein- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - Torben wrote in this thread how a set of equations could be written and solved to find the equity of any backgammon position. The solutions only make sense as equities though if the equities are all defined. In my coin example one can give an equation and solve it but that does not mean it gives the expected value of the game. If double take is correct then the player on turn either wins 2 points or gives his opponent the exact same situation but with the cube doubled. It is very tempting though wrong to think that E(X) = (1/2)(2) + (1/2) (-2E(X)) whose solution gives E(X) = 1/2. Bob Koca |
| Ads |
|
#22
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Mar 27, 12:43*pm, bob wrote:
On Mar 26, 9:13*pm, wrote: On Mar 26, 11:14*pm, bob wrote: On Mar 25, 9:11*pm, wrote: Almost surely, there _are_ situations like that in backgammon. *Can't you mimic the above scenario in backgammon by postulating 18 monster rolls for each side? But, suppose there are such situations in backgammon, why does it then follow that the value of a cube, as well as its position, can affect theoretical money play? *This seems to be a hole in your argument. *So let us assume that your scenario is exactly replicated in backgammon where there's a stalemate but each side has 18 monster winning rolls, and no gammons are possible. *Please explain why this scenario leads to the conclusion that the scenario with a 2 cube is essentially different than the scenario with a 1024 cube. * *I doubt that there is a siutation like that in backgammon. Note that you would need the 18 non-monster rolls to lead to repeating positions. There has been one proposed but it only can arise as the result of an illegal checker play. *Here is why such a situation will affect theoretical money play: *Theoretical money play means making the move that maximizes equity, assuming perfect play from the opponent. Equity means the expected value of the position. Take my coin flipping example again. If both players use the always double/take strategy then the player on turn will win $2 with probability 1/2, will lose $4 with probability 1/4, will win $8 with probability 1/8, will lose $16 with probability 1/16 ... *The expected value is 2(1/2) + (-4)(1/4) + (8)(1/8) + (-16) (1/16) + ... which does not converge. The expected value is not even defined. Bob Koca Yes, indeed. *I realised that. *However, you appeared to claim that this no-equity position implies that the value of the cube needs to be taken into account when enumerating positions. *You don't show this. In your example, whether the cube is on 2 or 4 or whatever, it's still the same no-equity verdict. Paul Epstein- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - * Torben wrote in this thread how a set of equations could be written and solved to find the equity of any backgammon position. The solutions only make sense as equities though if the equities are all defined. In my coin example one can give an equation and solve it but that does not mean it gives the expected value of the game. If double take is correct then the player on turn either wins 2 points or gives his opponent the exact same situation but with the cube doubled. It is very tempting though wrong to think that E(X) = (1/2)(2) + (1/2) (-2E(X)) whose solution gives E(X) = 1/2. Bob Koca- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - Ok but you did say that your paradox makes the potential number of positions infinite. I still don't see how. You have never explained, why, even assuming your paradoxical scenarios exist, a 32 cube should be regarded differently to a 64 cube. Both lead to the same conclusion -- equity undefined. You said this: If you are talking about money backgammon though then the cube position and value makes the NUMBER OF POSITIONS INFINITE. Now one might say that its position is all that matters since if you know the correct theoretical play holding a 2 cube then you also know the correct theoretical play holding a 4 or any higher value cube. There is a problem though in that the equations might not have a solution.... (caps added) Yet you never explain why your paradox would lead to an infinity of positions. Paul |
|
#23
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Mar 27, 1:13*am, wrote:
On Mar 27, 12:43*pm, bob wrote: On Mar 26, 9:13*pm, wrote: On Mar 26, 11:14*pm, bob wrote: On Mar 25, 9:11*pm, wrote: Almost surely, there _are_ situations like that in backgammon. *Can't you mimic the above scenario in backgammon by postulating 18 monster rolls for each side? But, suppose there are such situations in backgammon, why does it then follow that the value of a cube, as well as its position, can affect theoretical money play? *This seems to be a hole in your argument. *So let us assume that your scenario is exactly replicated in backgammon where there's a stalemate but each side has 18 monster winning rolls, and no gammons are possible. *Please explain why this scenario leads to the conclusion that the scenario with a 2 cube is essentially different than the scenario with a 1024 cube. * *I doubt that there is a siutation like that in backgammon. Note that you would need the 18 non-monster rolls to lead to repeating positions. There has been one proposed but it only can arise as the result of an illegal checker play. *Here is why such a situation will affect theoretical money play: *Theoretical money play means making the move that maximizes equity, assuming perfect play from the opponent. Equity means the expected value of the position. Take my coin flipping example again. If both players use the always double/take strategy then the player on turn will win $2 with probability 1/2, will lose $4 with probability 1/4, will win $8 with probability 1/8, will lose $16 with probability 1/16 ... *The expected value is 2(1/2) + (-4)(1/4) + (8)(1/8) + (-16) (1/16) + ... which does not converge. The expected value is not even defined. Bob Koca Yes, indeed. *I realised that. *However, you appeared to claim that this no-equity position implies that the value of the cube needs to be taken into account when enumerating positions. *You don't show this. In your example, whether the cube is on 2 or 4 or whatever, it's still the same no-equity verdict. Paul Epstein- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - * Torben wrote in this thread how a set of equations could be written and solved to find the equity of any backgammon position. The solutions only make sense as equities though if the equities are all defined. In my coin example one can give an equation and solve it but that does not mean it gives the expected value of the game. If double take is correct then the player on turn either wins 2 points or gives his opponent the exact same situation but with the cube doubled. It is very tempting though wrong to think that E(X) = (1/2)(2) + (1/2) (-2E(X)) whose solution gives E(X) = 1/2. Bob Koca- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - Ok but you did say that your paradox makes the potential number of positions infinite. *I still don't see how. *You have never explained, why, even assuming your paradoxical scenarios exist, a 32 cube should be regarded differently to a 64 cube. *Both lead to the same conclusion -- equity undefined. You said this: If you are talking about money backgammon though then the cube position and value makes the NUMBER OF POSITIONS INFINITE. Now one might say that its position is all that matters since if you know the correct theoretical play holding a 2 cube then you also know the correct theoretical play holding a 4 or any higher value cube. There is a problem though in that the equations might not have a solution.... (caps added) Yet you never explain why your paradox would lead to an infinity of positions. Paul- Hide quoted text - I clearly said that considering the position and value gives an infinite number of positions. Ignoring the value does give a finite number of positions. One must be careful though since equations can be made but there is no guarantee that the solutions actually give equities as one might expect. Bob Koca |
|
#24
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Mar 29, 4:56 pm, wrote:
I'm sure Bob realised 1.e4 is probably a draw. Bob was conducting a thought experiment which _assumes_ e4 is a win so your reply misses the point. well i'm aware the discussion/thread was about checkers, and in the latest postings about specific openings used, or left out by Schaeffer in his billion numbers database crunching. but from what i've read in some articles (June 2007) it's believed that these openings are irrelevant so they really think checkers is solved, ie a draw. Now i made a jump back to chess again as rec.games.chess etc. is about chess, isnt it. And with similar reasoning, lets say that. after 10 or 20 years or so someone would bother to do a similar exercise as Schaeffer, but now for chess, starting with openings d4, e4, Nf3, c4, and then would claim its a draw. Then of course some people might say: well you haven't tested e.g. 1.a3! or 1. h3 yet, so it's not 'proven' yet that chess is a draw. This then would not be a strong argument, as after 1.a3 d5! 2.d4 we would get similar positions as d4 opening lines, whereas after 1.h3 e5 2.e4 we would get similar opening lines as e4 e5 by transposition. Only relevant reasoning seems to be to investigate what opening lines are more double-edged, like eg Sicilian rather than drawish. If in certain tournaments one would like to stimulate exciting play, than eg. as response to e4 they could make eg. c5 obligatory. But this would change such tournaments into specific theme-tournaments, as eg. often is done already in correspondence chess (eg. d4 games with Benko gambit only or so). Not the way to go forward imho. Better extend chess to chess960 i would say, probably (indeed) much more exciting ![]() best regards jef |
|
#25
|
|||
|
|||
|
"jefk" wrote in message ... On Mar 29, 4:56 pm, wrote: I'm sure Bob realised 1.e4 is probably a draw. Bob was conducting a thought experiment which _assumes_ e4 is a win so your reply misses the point. well i'm aware the discussion/thread was about checkers, and in the latest postings about specific openings used, or left out by Schaeffer in his billion numbers database crunching. ] but from what i've read in some articles (June 2007) it's believed that these openings are irrelevant so they really think checkers is solved, ie a draw. That's a practical, not absolute, solution. We were talking about working out EVERY combination for every opening, and how the solved openings can be avoided by force of rule, leaving the unsolved remainder for tournaments. The point was that it's possible for a GAME to be solved but for rules to be enacted that change the game to something not solved. Then again, my name isn't Bob, so.... |
| Thread Tools | |
| Display Modes | |
|
|
Similar Threads
|
||||
| Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
| Checkers is solved -Guy Macon | Guy Macon | rec.games.chess.misc (Chess General) | 18 | July 25th 07 07:58 AM |
| Guy Macon: "Checkers was weakly solved on 29 April 2007" | Guy Macon | rec.games.chess.misc (Chess General) | 1 | July 22nd 07 01:28 PM |
| Guy Macon: "Checkers was weakly solved on 29 April 2007" | Guy Macon | rec.games.chess.misc (Chess General) | 0 | July 22nd 07 02:31 AM |
| checkers is solved | marcus@stkittsnevischess.org | rec.games.chess.politics (Chess Politics) | 0 | July 20th 07 05:09 PM |
| Has Checkers been SOLVED?!? (Univ of Alberta says YES) | Berkeley Brett | rec.games.chess.computer (Computer Chess) | 1 | July 20th 07 04:44 AM |