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| Tags: number, optimal, players, respect, rounds |
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#1
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Hi,
Here's a problem for any chess players out there who are also computer scientists/mathematicians, what is the optimal number of rounds in a chess tournament with respect to the number of players? Obviously, the best case would be number of players-1 rounds. But suppose we had to limit the number of rounds to less than half the number players, is it always the case that the most number of rounds possible the optimal number? |
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#3
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Harialbth wrote:
Obviously, the best case would be number of players-1 rounds. It would be better to have twice that many rounds to avoid piece colour problems. Dave. -- David Richerby Cyber-Monk (TM): it's like a man of www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~davidr/ God that exists only in your computer! |
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#4
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Obviously, the best case would be number of players-1 rounds.
Leaving aside unscientific factors such as whether you can "survive" 199 rounds, it seems obvious that an all play all tournament is best because everybody has had the same opposition so there's no element of chance. |
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#5
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#6
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Harialbth wrote:
Obviously, the best case would be number of players-1 rounds. Leaving aside unscientific factors such as whether you can "survive" 199 rounds, it seems obvious that an all play all tournament is best because everybody has had the same opposition so there's no element of chance. There most certainly is an element of chance. In the 1964 Amsterdam Interzonal there was what was called "The Russian wall": owing to the way the tournament numbers were set non-USSR players played "The Russians" (i.e. Soviets, not necessarily Russians) one after another in successive rounds. It was a distinct disadvantage to run into this wall early in the tournament, as one was likely to drop many points in contests with such a formidable group of players; conversely playing them at the end was very beneficial as FIDE rules prevented all "the Russians" from qualifying for the Candidates, which made them far more nervous. If it is obvious that an all play all is superior, then it should be possible to demonstrate this is a simple easily understood way, preferably not using the one word proof "obvious". Regards, Simon. |
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#7
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If it is obvious that an all play all is superior, then it should be
possible to demonstrate this is a simple easily understood way, preferably not using the one word proof "obvious". A stomach upset or nervous opponents can be part of any competition and not within the parameters of a good tournament algorithm. You can be the best athlete in the world and have a stomach upset in the olympic finals, does that make the olympic system flawed?? If A, B and C are in competition, to determine the best player isn't it "obviously " better if A plays B, B plays C, and C plays A. Than just let A play the winner of B-C and declare the winner of that game the champion. |
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#8
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Harialbth wrote:
If A, B and C are in competition, to determine the best player isn't it "obviously " better if A plays B, B plays C, and C plays A. At this stage they have played two games each. Than just let A play the winner of B-C and declare the winner of that game the champion. Now A only has to win one game, whereas B or C must win two. Why does A get such an advantage? Consider a competition of twenty players say, where two players are miles better than the rest: suppose all we are interested in is the winner and we want him to be the "best player", then an all-play-all would be rather tiresome, it could lead to the winner being the best "bunny exterminator" rather than the "best player". Why is this better than a five round swiss, say, when dropping a half point against a "bunny" may not be too disastrous. In the all-play-all format the "best player" may take one or two chances too many and have the nearly impossible task of clawing back two points vis-a-vis the second ranked player. Consider also an alternative format of splitting into two groups, with one favourite in each group, the winners of the groups facing off in the final; why would this be such a poor way of tackling the problem? The final could be a mini-match, but overall there could still be fewer games played. That All-play-all is **always** the optimal format doesn't seem obvious to me. Regards, Simon. |
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#9
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chapman Billy wrote in message
... Consider a competition of twenty players say, where two players are miles better than the rest: suppose all we are interested in is the winner and we want him to be the "best player", then an all-play-all would be rather tiresome, it could lead to the winner being the best "bunny exterminator" rather than the "best player". Why is this better than a five round swiss, say, when dropping a half point against a "bunny" may not be too disastrous. In the all-play-all format the "best player" may take one or two chances too many and have the nearly impossible task of clawing back two points vis-a-vis the second ranked player.... Some persons have contended that Paul Keres 'deserved' to have won the 1959 Candidates Tournament ahead of Mikhail Tal, who had scored only 1-3 against Keres, but who had crushed Fischer (4-0), Benko (3.5-0.5), Gligoric (3.5-0.5), and Olafsson (3.5-0.5). Should Tal have been invited to the Watership Down Memorial Tournament? :-) --Nick |
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#10
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