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| Tags: anything, chess, does, draw, headline, interest, kasparov, retails, title, toincrease |
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#61
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On Apr 24, 12:59*am, "David Kane" wrote:
Kasparov's manipulations to keep the title by leaving FIDE are well known. They may not be historically out of line with champion's behavior pre-FIDE, but neither it is anything to boast about. He played just two title defenses in a 10-year period. Dave, I'm having trouble seeing what 10-year period you mean. Here are Kasparov's title matches: 1984-85 vs. Karpov (nullified w/o result by FIDE) 1985 -- wins title from Karpov 1986 -- retains title vs. Karpov 1987 -- retains title vs. Karpov 1990 -- retains title vs. Karpov 1993 -- retains title vs. Short 1995 -- retains title vs. Anand 2000 -- loses title to Kramnik I can see a 9-year period that could be considered to have "just two title defenses," i.e. 1991-1999, though I would not use the word "just," which seems to imply that GK was relatively inactive or ducking competition. One could as easily characterize it as a rather active period by saying he played four title matches in 11 years. The 1990 match ended on December 31st, and the 2000 match began on October 8th, so the longest period involving "just two title defenses" by Kasparov was 9 years, 9 months and 7 days. This is quite comparable to, say, Botvinnik, who after winning the title at Hague-Moscow 1948, played "just two title defenses" in the period June 1948 through February 1957. |
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#62
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wrote in message ... On Apr 24, 12:59 am, "David Kane" wrote: Kasparov's manipulations to keep the title by leaving FIDE are well known. They may not be historically out of line with champion's behavior pre-FIDE, but neither it is anything to boast about. He played just two title defenses in a 10-year period. Dave, I'm having trouble seeing what 10-year period you mean. Here are Kasparov's title matches: 1984-85 vs. Karpov (nullified w/o result by FIDE) 1985 -- wins title from Karpov 1986 -- retains title vs. Karpov 1987 -- retains title vs. Karpov 1990 -- retains title vs. Karpov 1993 -- retains title vs. Short 1995 -- retains title vs. Anand 2000 -- loses title to Kramnik I can see a 9-year period that could be considered to have "just two title defenses," i.e. 1991-1999, though I would not use the word "just," which seems to imply that GK was relatively inactive or ducking competition. One could as easily characterize it as a rather active period by saying he played four title matches in 11 years. The 1990 match ended on December 31st, and the 2000 match began on October 8th, so the longest period involving "just two title defenses" by Kasparov was 9 years, 9 months and 7 days. This is quite comparable to, say, Botvinnik, who after winning the title at Hague-Moscow 1948, played "just two title defenses" in the period June 1948 through February 1957. I knew Parr was too stupid and lazy to count the months, but I guess I should have expected somebody to! Based on your research, I will correct my statement to "He played just two title defenses in a 9.75 year period" (Hasn't anyone ever heard of rounding??) FIDE was based on a 3 year cycle. Because of the nullified match and the rematch clause, it took 3 matches to complete one cycle. Then it follows the pattern until 1990 (Kasparov retaining the title by tie in one case, demonstrating the importance of the champion's advantage) Then we go to the non-FIDE era (essentially Kasparov doing whatever he felt like). He started off reasonably well, then there is a period where he doesn't play a match for ~5 years. There are various ways to interpret what happened in that period, others beside Kasparov bear some of the responsibility, but at the end of the day it was his show and he wasn't playing WC matches. Nothing comparable to the credibility of FIDE's cycle had been developed. So basically, I was refuting the Parr claim that Kasparov was somehow an advocate of fair play. He gave himself statistically larger champion's advantage than those who were champion in the FIDE era, and manipulated things to suit himself. Not that this was in any way abnormal for a chess world champion! It is depressingly normal. |
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#63
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Rich Hutnik wrote:
" wrote: THIS CRAZY WORLD OF CHESS BY GM LARRY EVANS (page 14) Kasparov gave two reasons for sticking with this system at a symposium we both attended in Madrid: 1. Since he had to overcome draw odds when he was the underdog, he saw no reason why the challenger shouldn't have to vault the same obstacle. 2. Organizers must have a definite budget and solid dates when they book a playing hall, which isn't possible in an open-ended match. Kasparov's argument makes sense, yet Fischer's point is still valid. Only wins should count. This way, a champion can't cling to the title by playing for draws. And this explains why the format remains. Someone gets to be champion, no way are they going to lower the bar in any way for the challenger. So, it looks like it is now stuck. I think you need to read up on the history of the championship -- you seem to be overlooking an awful lot of basic points, here. Up to 1948, the world championship was, essentially, the property of the champion. He could set his own rules and do whatever he wanted. For example, Capablanca and Alekhine were never able to agree terms for a rematch after Alekhine won the title; Alekhine instead played and won matches against the weaker Bogoljubow. From 1948, the championship was run by FIDE. While the champion has a certain weight in arguing for the terms he wants, ultimately, FIDE has the final say. For example, Fischer wanted the 1975 match to be played as first to ten wins but FIDE said no and he refused to play the match, forfeiting the title in the process. In 1993, Kasparov (the then FIDE champion) and Short (the then FIDE challenger) became annoyed enough with FIDE's handling of the match arrangements that they decided to run the match themselves, outside FIDE. This created a parallel `personal property' championship that stayed in Kasparov's hands until he was beaten by Kramnik in 2000. Meanwhile, FIDE continued to organize their own championship, initially in the form of challenger-vs-champion matches, then as a knock-out tournament and, more recently, as a round-robin tournament contested by the top players. FIDE did not recognize Kasparov or Kramnik as world champion. I believe that Kasparov's comments refer to the period 1993-2000 when he was effectively able to set terms for world championship matches. Dave. -- David Richerby Crystal Lead Widget (TM): it's like www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~davidr/ a thingy that weighs a ton but it's completely transparent! |
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#64
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On Apr 24, 3:29 am, " wrote:
DAVID KANE TRIES TO REWRITE HISTORY? David Kane, as usual, made some bizarre claims, but instead of refuting them, we get this equally bizarre response from chief rat Larry Parr: EVANS: If Fischer had asked for a return match clause instead of ten wins, do you think FIDE would have given it to him? AVERBAKH: Of course. Of course. Generally speaking, it is the *reigning champion* who makes selfish "demands", not the challenger. In this case, the fact that it was Bobby Fischer making "demands", shows just how ludicrous the handling of this cycle was. Former world champ Tigran Petrosian wrote that this nonsense placed the other players in the same situation psycho- logically, as men under fire in a foxhole during war. EVANS: But this clause was a bigger mathematical advantage than the one FIDE had denied Fischer. Larry Evans later came under fire when this sweeping claim was debunked. -- help bot |
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#65
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"help bot" wrote in message ... On Apr 24, 3:29 am, " wrote: EVANS: But this clause was a bigger mathematical advantage than the one FIDE had denied Fischer. Larry Evans later came under fire when this sweeping claim was debunked. It's not a question that can be answered mathematically. Having a chance at a rematch and having an advantage in a match itself are two separate things. Does Evans argue that Fischer never became World Champion because he refused to offer Spassky a rematch? Of course not. I am not personally a fan of the rematch clause, even though some rematches have produced good chess. However, it could be viewed as compensation of a different sort for playing a match without any advantage, as Karpov did three times. Note that the current FIDE system includes a bizarre form of rematch, though it doesn't pertain to a head-to-head match. Kramnik "lost" to Anand (i.e. finished behind him in a tournament) so now gets his "rematch". -- help bot |
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#66
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On Apr 24, 11:50 am, "David Kane" wrote:
So basically, I was refuting the Parr claim that Kasparov was somehow an advocate of fair play. The ploy of mentioning that Gary Kasparov had "renounced" the champion's unfair advantage has come back to bite. In fact, the only real "advocate of fair play" I can think of offhand is Larry Evans, in his famous article in Chess Life where he refused to endorse the unfair "demands" of Bobby Fischer. Some time afterward, a crotchety old man replaced the real Larry Evans, and in this new form, he began attempting every conceivable method to "justify" what had happenned, and shift the blame to anyone *but* Bobby Fischer. This shape-shifting, blame-transferring incarnation of Larry Evans is the one that countless critics have identified as being fundamentally dishonest. But how could he be otherwise? You want to know what's really funny? Today, in the real chess world, "we" -- that is the USA -- have another contender for the world championship title, but because he is not a native-born American, the Evans ratpack does not recognize that he exists! Too bad Larry Christiansen or Nick "gimme another, and make it a double" DeFirmian were not better chess players. -- help bot |
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#67
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In article ,
wrote: On this matter I must basically agree with Parr. In his autobiography, Botvinnik describes how he himself was the main author of the regulations FIDE adopted for world championship matches and challenger qualifying. I'm not sure whether they were then "imposed" on FIDE, or FIDE just adopted them willingly, but either way Botvinnik and his Soviet supporters got what they wanted. Does or did anyone think it mattered? For the couple of decades from 1948 until Larsen and then Fischer became serious contenders, the WC and the Olympiads were Soviet monopolies. If the WCs had not been Botvinnik, Smyslov, Tal, Petrosian, Spassky, the most likely alternatives were Keres, Bronstein, Geller, Korchnoi and others from the USSR. Reshevsky, Najdorf, Szabo, Gligoric and so on were strong GMs, but it's hard to argue that any of them bar just possibly Reshevsky on top form were serious contenders for the title [as opposed to likely qualifiers for the Candidates]. If the WC match is between Soviet GMs and held in the USSR, it's hard to argue that any other country should have had much of a say in the match conditions. Whether Keres, Bronstein, Smyslov and Tal were hard done by is "interesting", even important, esp when assessing Botvinnik's [in particular] greatness as a player, but largely a matter of internal Soviet politics. In 1972 it all changed .... -- Andy Walker Nottingham |
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#68
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J.D. Walker wrote:
One possibility of ensuring more decisive match results would be to change the way draws are scored. I like the idea of giving White .45 of the point and Black .55 of the point. Mathematicians might come up with a better way to split the point. A drawn 24 game match would seem to be much more unlikely with this idea. There are a number of problems with that proposal. First and foremost, doesn't it encourage both players to play for the draw with black? It might not actually help too much, either. If the match is going to be tied, it's likely that most of the games will be drawn. With only a few wins, it's quite likely that all the wins will be with the white pieces, which means that the match will still be tied with the suggested scoring system. It also has a rather counter-intuitive property. Suppose that a match is played that would have been drawn under standard scoring of half a point each for a draw. It follows that the players both won the same number of games. But now look at the number of wins each player has with each colour. Every win a player gets with a particular colour is one less draw with that colour. In particular, winning more games with black means drawing fewer games with black, which means fewer points. Consider the following four-game match, with Alice having white in the first game. Alice + = - = 2.1 Bob - = + = 1.9 It seems a bit strange that Bob loses the match, given that he won his game as black, which is harder than winning with white. I suppose you could try to fix this by changing the scores for wins, to compensate for the points `lost' by not getting the draw. If players can get used to decimal results as opposed to whole number results it should work fine in tournaments also. We can do it. Look at how we adapted to the metric system! Oops, I forgot, we didn't. The rest of the world did. :-P Dave. -- David Richerby Psychotic Windows (TM): it's like a www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~davidr/ graphical user interface but it wants to kill you! |
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#69
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On Apr 24, 2:41*pm, (Andy Walker) wrote:
In article , wrote: *On this matter I must basically agree with Parr. In his autobiography, Botvinnik describes how he himself was the main author of the regulations FIDE adopted for world championship matches and challenger qualifying. I'm not sure whether they were then "imposed" on FIDE, or FIDE just adopted them willingly, but either way Botvinnik and his Soviet supporters got what they wanted. * * * * Does or did anyone think it mattered? * That's rather beside the point I was trying to make, Andy. The point of my post was simply to say that Parr had given the historial facts accurately on this particular occasion. With the exception of the rematch clause, I don't think the Botvinnik rules were markedly unfair. One could argue that the clause, by which the incumbent retained his title in the event of a tie match, was unfair, but it was nothing new, going back at least to Lasker- Schlechter 1910. What _was_ unfair were the Soviets' behind the scenes machinations, e.g. keeping Najdorf out in 1948, and their collusive tactics, especially in the Candidates Tournaments to ensure that no non-Soviet player got to be the challenger. For the couple of decades from 1948 until Larsen and then Fischer became serious contenders, Fischer became a serious contender before Larsen. They both played in an Interzonal for the first time in 1958, but Fischer became a FIDE Candidate first, in 1959, based on his 5th place in that Interzonal. Larsen placed only 16th in that event, and did not make it to the Candidates cycle until 1965. the WC and the Olympiads were Soviet monopolies. *If the WCs had not been Botvinnik, Smyslov, Tal, Petrosian, Spassky, the most likely alternatives were Keres, Bronstein, Geller, Korchnoi and others from the USSR. *Reshevsky, Najdorf, Szabo, Gligoric and so on were strong GMs, but it's hard to argue that any of them bar just possibly Reshevsky on top form were serious contenders for the title [as opposed to likely qualifiers for the Candidates]. I never have been able to buy the argument that Soviet cheating was OK because they would have won anyway without it. Surely you're not saying that? |
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#70
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Rich Hutnik wrote:
How many organized sports have players playing 24 games? And, let's get real here people, when you start to introduce time controls to chess, having titles, awarding points, Chess becomes a sport. Well, I'm not sure that's the distinguishing feature of a sport but let's not get side-tracked on that. Why should any sport need more than 24 games in order to decide who the world champion is? Snooker uses a best of 35 match, over three days. (It's not possible for a frame to be tied so the odd number of games guarantees a winner.) The point is that the champion and challenger are very closely-matched in skill. Very short matches mean that the title can be decided by a single error, which leads to a feeling that the title is not really earnt. Want a simple solution? How about if the defending champion doesn't secure more points than his opponent after 24 games, then he loses his title, and there is no reigning world champ. That has the same problem as the idea of declaring joint champions in the same situation -- how do you arrange the *next* championship? Someone please tell me exactly what reigning world champions do to help the growth of chess? Serve as an aspiration and a role model? Almost all sports have world and regional champions so I assume there must be some value in it. If nothing, why not end up not having one, if allows chess to to make needed changes. As I see it, the reigning chess champion is known by next to no one outside the chess world. How useful is that? Are we supposed to blame the reigning champ as not being Bobby Fischer? My guess is that, if you ask the man on the street who is the world chess champion, he'll say `I don't know' or `Garry Kasparov'. As far as unlimited number of games go, are they going to hold the world championship in the FIDE headquarters? Please tell me how exactly you will be able to have a location to have the tournament for MONTHS? Also, tell me how the world is going to care. These are exactly the problems that led to the matches being fixed at twenty-four games, with draw odds for the champion! Dave. -- David Richerby Salted Natural Postman (TM): it's www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~davidr/ like a man who delivers the mail but it's completely natural and covered in salt! |
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